kmrbnsy8821 kmrbnsy8821
  • 01-05-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1½ parts rice. If 1½ parts of beans are used, how much rice should be used?

Respuesta :

kmc060077
kmc060077 kmc060077
  • 01-05-2020

Answer:

2.

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 2 because if it is 1 1/2 for rice and 1 for beans then you add 1/2 to beans you should also add 1/2 to rice which would equal 2 because 2 halves make a whole.

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

What was the major reason for Napoleon's defeat during his invasion of Russia in 1812?
Women's contributions to the enlightenment included all of the following except a. holding social gatherings called salons for influential people. b. running
If clay cost $16.50 for 50lb how much does clay cost for 45 pounds
ln(y+1)-lny=1+3lnx . Express y in terms of x, in a form not involving logarithms. (4 marks, Maths CIE A level)
Whose unexpected reaction after one of George Whitefield's sermons demonstrated how powerful Whitefield's preaching style was? The New Light preacher Jonathan
What is not a way constitution is used today?
What is the y-coordinate of the red point?
The temperature drops 3°C every hour for five hours what is a integer for this problem
PLEASE HELP. MULTIPLE CHOICE ONE QUESTION! write the equation that is perpendicular to the given line and passes through the given point Y-4=5/4 (x+3); (-7 8) y
Which of the following is an antonym of the word happy? a. joyful b. jovial c. miserable d. blissful